Over at the Mirror of Justice,
Why it is true? In my earlier post I distinguished a) the "sort" or type of act involved, b) the circumstances in which an instance of that "sort" or type of act may take place, and c) the goals for which an instance of that "sort" or type of act may take place. I argued that questions of "desert" bear upon a), and not b) or c). It is because a "sort" or type of act can meet a) for "desert", and yet instances of that type of act fail to meet b) or c) that some instance could be "deserved" and yet it "ought not" to be employed.
That analysis might suggest that the question of "ought" bears only upon b) and c). I did not mean to suggest that. While the question of "desert" bears upon a) and not b) or c), the question of "ought" bears, in different ways, upon a), b), and c). In particular with regard to a), there are some types of acts that "ought" never to be done, torture, rape, enslavement, and so on. The reason why they "ought" never to be done is that no person "deserves" to have them done to him or her. Such types of acts cannot fall under a description of "giving what is due to another", which is one way of describing the nature of justice. They are unjust types of acts.
So in the order of explanation, I would not say that the reason why such types of acts are not "deserved" is because they "ought not" to be done. It goes the other way around. I would say that the reason they "ought not to be done" is because they are not, and cannot be "sorts" or types of acts that can be "due" to anyone. Because there are at least three different ways of saying that an act "ought not" to be done, we want to inquire in any particular case why it ought not to be done. Because these are inappropriate circumstances? Because our goals are base? Or because it is an instance of a type of act that no one deserves to have done to him or her? "Deserve" and "ought" are not coextensive terms, since there appears to be only one way in which something might fail to be "deserved", namely, a), but many ways in which it may be something that we "ought not to do", namely failure of a), b), or c). And failure with regard to any one of these is sufficient for saying that it is something that we "ought not to do".
This latter possibility is not a judgment concerning b) or c). It is simply addressing the question of the specification of a type punishment as proportionate response to a type of crime, and thus bears upon a). So we have two types of acts of punishment that "ought not" to be done. 1) Those types that "ought not" to be done to anyone, and 2) those types that "ought not" to be done to some, that is, those not guilty of a crime for which such a type of punishment is "due", but may be done to others, that is, those guilty of a crime for which such a type of punishment is "due".
Michael asks, parenthetically, whether torture and the death penalty are such "sorts" or types that are not "deserved" if they are types of acts that "ought not" to be done. Given what I have just written, the question is unclear. If one maintains that they are of the "sort" that "ought not" to be done to anyone in the sense of 1), it is immediately evident that they are not "deserved" by anyone. But that is a fairly straightforward and in some ways uninteresting logical claim, since I have argued that in the sense of 1) the reason why they would be something that "ought not" to be done by anyone is because they are not "deserved" by anyone. So in the relevant sense that we are talking about here, we would typically judge that some "sort" of act "ought not" to be done because we have already judged that it is not the "sort" of act that is "deserved." In the sense at play here, it is difficult to know what other evidence we might have that the types of act "ought not" to be done, other than the fact that they are not types of acts that are "deserved." Given that account, we would not engage in the following dialogue: "No one 'deserves' them." "Why?" "Because no one 'ought' to do them." We would more likely engage in the following dialogue: "They 'ought not' to be done." "Why?" "Because no one 'deserves' them."
Now, if one maintains that they "ought not" to be done to anyone in the sense of 2), it is evident that that is because they are not "deserved" by some and are "deserved" by others. So an important question, it seems to me, is in what sense someone would claim that torture and the death penalty are the "sorts" of acts one "ought not" to do--in sense 1) or 2)? Against the background of the teaching of the Church, I think it is evident that in the case of torture the sense at play is 1). It is a type of act that no one "deserves" in any circumstance or for any reason. However, I argued in my earlier post that if we are operating against the background of the Church's teaching on the death penalty, then we have to recognize that the death penalty may well be "deserved" for certain crimes, even if it "ought not" to be employed. The reason why this state of affairs can obtain is that according to Church teaching the death penalty can be used in admittedly extreme circumstances, though those circumstances may not obtain in the advanced countries of the West, for example. It can be used in such circumstances, only because it passes the test of a) for a "sort" or type of punishment proportionate to a certain type of crime. So the "ought not" there has to do with b) and c), not a).
If it does not meet a) at all, there are no circumstances, however extreme, in which it can be used. So clearly, against the background of the Church's teaching, since there are circumstances in which it can be used, the death penalty must meet a) in some sense. But it cannot be a case of 1) above, that is, a "sort" or type of punishment that cannot be done to anyone. It must meet 2), a "sort" or type of punishment that is proportionate to some kinds of crimes, and not others. In that case, presuming the truth of the Church's teaching, one cannot say simply with regard to a) that the death penalty "ought not" to be done. One must say that with regard to a) the death penalty "ought not" to be used for types of crimes that do not "deserve" it in the sense of 2), but it may be used for types crimes that do "deserve" it in the sense of 2).
And of course, it may well be the case that even if it may be done in the sense of 2), presuming the truth of the Church's teaching it "ought not" to be used because of b) or c), as I argued in my earlier post.
John
I think the conditional is false. Forget about the death penalty for a moment. I can certainly think of examples in which one might conclude that a punishment that is "deserved" is nonetheless one that "ought not" to be imposed. First consider a CEO of some company who has seven children, a widowed mother whom he takes care of, and who has a total family income of $10,000,000 a year. But he embezzles $1,000,000 from his company and loses it gambling on the internet. It seems to me that a perfectly appropriate penalty for that crime, a penalty that is "deserved" is that, among other things, he be made to pay the money back. That is an appropriate kind of punishment for that kind of crime, and is thus "deserved."
But now consider a lower level manager at the same company who has embezzled $1,000,000 from the company, and lost it on the internet gambling. Having committed exactly the same kind of crime, he "deserves" the same kind of punishment for that crime. But now suppose that manager has seven children, a widowed mother whom he takes care of, and a total family income of $50,000. Even though he "deserves" it, imposing that sentence upon that person would make it impossible for him to fulfill other very important obligations to society, for example, sustaining his family, raising his kids, taking care of his widowed mother, because he would never be able to come out from under the weight of the punishment. Then it seems that judicial authority ought not impose that punishment on that man, even though it is "deserved". Yes, he has committed the same kind of crime. Yes, he "deserves" the same kind of punishment. But no, we ought not impose the same kind of punishment, since punishment must serve the common good.
In other words, imposing a particular penalty that is "deserved" might result in a much worse problem for society in some way. Then one ought not to impose it, but, rather, some other punishment that either meets the qualification of being equally "deserved" (a period of incarceration or house arrest for instance that does not lead to the destitution of his family or his inability to work), or a significant punishment that is also "deserved" but that nonetheless embodies a certain level of "forgiving the debt" that is owed. Recognizing that fact does not imply that he does not "deserve" to be made to pay back the money. It just implies that society need not punish someone in every way he could be punished according to what he "deserves". There may be many alternate ways to punish a crime, all of which taken singly count as "deserved"; in fact any punishment must be "deserved", even if we do not have recourse to it.
Or consider the Church's teaching on the death penalty. If we admit the extreme possibility contemplated by the Pope and the Catechism, namely, that there is no other way of protecting society, the act of putting to death must nonetheless be a punishment that the criminal "deserves". We cannot kill him even in such an extreme situation if he has not committed a crime for which that act of punishment is just "desert". We cannot kill him if his crime is stealing horses, for example, or embezzling money. If we suppose that he has committed a crime that does not "deserve" the act of being put to death as punishment, to say that suddenly he "deserves" it because we cannot protect society is to transform our failure into his "desert", which would be morally and politically reprehensible and perverse. Suppose when he is sentenced we can protect society, and so he is sentenced to life in prison without the possibility of parole because "his crime does not 'deserve' death as a penalty." But then through some societal wide disaster we become incapable of protecting society. Does he suddenly change from not "deserving" death as a penalty for his crime to "deserving" death as a penalty for his crime?
On the contrary, if one is to be put to death for a crime, it is a necessary condition that that act of punishment be a "just 'desert'" for that type of crime. No social need of protecting society can justify killing someone who does not "deserve" to die as punishment for what he has done. However, if there is some other way to protect society from someone who has committed a crime that "deserves" death, life in prison without parole for example, then the Pope exhorts us to use that other way. But again, insofar as life in prison without parole is an act of coercive punishment, that act of punishment must also be "deserved" as a punishment for that crime. So both acts, death and life in prison, are "deserved" as types of punishment for his crime. Yet we cannot do both. And we "ought not" to do one of them except in the most extreme case of not otherwise being able to protect society. If we put him to death, we are not suggesting that he did not "deserve" life in prison for his crime. Similarly, if we put him in prison for life because we "ought not" execute him, we are not saying that he did not "deserve" death for his crime.
Now consider this real case here and here. There are many people who think that if any heinous crime "deserves" the death penalty, killing a police officer certainly does. Policemen literally place their lives on the line for civil order and the common good. Their sacrifices are the means by which sufficient civil order is maintained such that we live in a society in which we need not have recourse to the death penalty. Without them, what the Pope writes is moot. In that case their lives "deserve" special protection in the law in order that one recognize the great sacrifice they are willing to make on a daily basis for the common good. Consistent with what the Pope teaches about the extreme situation in which one might have recourse to the death penalty, if they come under attack, the very means of protecting society, then it seems that death is certainly a penalty that is "deserved" for such an attack on civil order and the common good.
Supposing that to be the case, is it possible that someone may "deserve" the death penalty for what he has done, and yet society ought not to execute him? Well consider Ricky Ray Rector who killed a policeman. Governor Clinton left the campaign trail in 1992 to oversee his execution in Arkansas. Rector was not mentally deficient when he killed the policeman. But having killed him, he turned his gun upon himself and shot himself in the head. The subsequent brain surgery left him so mentally impaired that as he went off to his execution he saved his pecan pie from his last meal for "when he got back," and seeing Governor Clinton on television, said he intended to vote for him for president in the Fall. It is plausible to claim that given his mental competency in killing a policeman his crime was of a kind that "deserved" death as an act of punishment, and yet given his mental incompetency subsequent to his crime, he "ought not" to have been executed.
So what is going on here? That an act of punishment is "deserved" is a necessary condition for what society does to criminals. It is not a sufficient condition for doing something to a criminal. Nor is it necessary in the sense of "required."
This is a common moral phenomenon. One "deserves" to have returned to one one's property. A man asks me to hold his gun for him. It is his property. He "deserves" it back. But he is suicidal when he asks for it back. Then I "ought not" to give him what he "deserves". The discharging of such debts must serve the common good. The fact that there are circumstances in which, and goals for which we "ought not" discharge a debt that is "owed", doesn't imply that my friend doesn't in fact "deserve" his gun back. The fact of "desert" does not of itself imply the way in which such "desert" is to be discharged since any discharging of the "desert" must serve the good of the individuals involved and the common good. Just as there can be kinds of acts that are good that ought not to be done in particular (having sexual relations with one's wife (kind) on the courthouse steps (particular)) there are kinds of acts of punishment that are "deserved" and yet ought not to be done in particular.
The reason why an act of punishment can be both "deserved" and one we ought not to do is because like any act, it has many features that enter into its moral evaluation. If we distinguish between a) kinds of acts, b) the circumstances in which instances of those acts are to occur, and c) the goals for which instances of those acts occur, then we have to ask when we say that a "punishment is 'deserved'" what feature of an act of punishment we have in mind when we say so, a), b), or c)? It seems to me that there is certainly a sense in which the question of "desert" comes in to play with a). If a necessary condition for an act of punishment to be deserved is that it involves redressing the wrong at which it is directed, then one must ask of certain kinds of acts whether they are the kinds of acts that do in fact redress the wrong involved in the crime. To take an easy case, ten years of imprisonment, or hacking off a hand for stealing a loaf of bread would not be appropriate kinds of acts of punishment for redressing the wrong involved in the crime. Those kinds of acts would not be "deserved". Community service and a period of probation might be a kind of act that is deserved, but so might all sorts of limited others. But I would think at the very least, when talking about kinds of acts of punishment that are "deserved", one could never impose a kind of punishment that is not "deserved".
However, saying that such a kind of act is deserved does not entail that it is required. Take the death penalty. As a kind of act it may well be deserved for certain crimes, and yet it be the case that, as the Pope says, the only circumstance in which it is "required" is one in which there is no other way to protect society from the wrongdoer. (Given the fact that such an extreme circumstance is contemplated as possible, it follows from a) above that such a punishment must also be "deserved". One cannot use the death penalty to protect society even in an extreme situation, if that punishment is not also "deserved" qua redressing the wrong that was committed.)
In any case, when we bring in considerations of circumstances, that is, b), we might end up saying such things as that while a certain punishment is "deserved" it need not be required. In addition, we might even say that it is "deserved" but in certain circumstances we ought not to pursue it at all, as for example, if our means of carrying out the punishment are particularly brutal, or dehumanizing of the agents of the punishment, or that in these circumstances such a "deserved" kind of penalty would actually undermine the common good, or any number of other circumstances. Think of "truth and reconciliation commissions" throughout the world that are often used in lieu of judicial proceedings that might stand in the way of healing a brutalized society. Those who have brutalized the society certainly deserve punishment of some sort, and yet for the good of the society in the circumstances it is judged that they "ought not" to be so punished.
So with regard to b), I wouldn't think that b) bears upon "desert" but upon a prudential political and judicial judgment. Consistent with the point made above, any alternative punishment that might be imposed when making a prudential judgment about circumstances must be an act of punishment that is also "deserved". Life in prison without possibility of parole must be "deserved" if it is going to be used in such and such circumstances, rather than the death penalty. If it is not "deserved", one cannot impose it just to protect society from possible future harm. But given the brutality of our prison system, perhaps we ought not even impose life in prison without parole, but, rather, some limited time in prison, and so on. These are questions of prudence, not "desert".
I would say much the same about c) as b), namely, that here we have questions of prudence rather than "desert". One "ought not" to impose a punishment even if it meets a) as far as "desert" goes, and meets b) as for circumstances, if one is simply hoping to discharge and thus calm the blood lust of one's community, for example. And to pursue certain social goals, one can "forgive the debt" that is owed, and so on. But, of course, one can only forgive a debt that is actually "owed". It is neither forgiveness nor mercy to claim to forgive what is not "owed" or what is not "deserved". Such a claim is a kind of self deception on the part of governing authority.
Thus, insofar as there are cases in which one would judge that a punishment "ought not" to be employed and yet is deserved, it is clear that the conditional--if one ought not to employ some act of punishment to redress a wrong, then that act of punishment is not deserved--is false. Insofar as it has been explained above how such a state of affairs could obtain, we know why the conditional is false.
THE punishment of high treason in general is very solemn and terrible. 1. That the offender be drawn to the gallows, and not be carried or walk; though usually a fledge or hurdle is allowed, to preserve the offender from the extreme torment of being dragged on the ground or pavement. 2. That he be hanged by the neck, and then cut down alive. 3. That his entrails be taken out, and burned, while he is yet alive. 4. That his head be cut off. 5. That his body be divided into four parts. 6. That his head and quarters be at the king's disposal.
The essence of punishments, as Aquinas clearly and often explains, is that they subject offenders to something contrary to their wills--something contra voluntatem (citing Sentences, d. 42, q. 1, a. 2c; Summa theologiae 1a2ae, q.46, a. 6, ad2, and 1a, q. 48, a. 5c, and 1a2ae, q. 87, aa. 2c & 6c). This, not papin, is of the essence. Why? Because the essence of offenses is that in their wrongful acts offenders "yielded to their will more than they ought" (citing SummaIt's worth noting that in the essay Finnis is opposing Aquinas's view especially to that of Nietzsche as stated in On the Genalogy of Morality (2d treatise). Finnis' point, then, is that pain (if there be pain in some punishment) is an accidental feature and certainly not something inflicted for its own sake. Considerations about just what constitutes a proportionate suppression of an offending will in the context of the overall common good are decisive. At a minimum, it seems to me that the effect of torture not on the one tortured but on the torturer and on the whole community is enough to abolish punishments that involve torture. Of course, it should also be noted that Finnis's points here are not theological, but simply philosophical so far as I can tell. I should think that explicitly theological considerations would only add to the weight of the argument.
theologiae, 1a2ae, q. 87, a. 6c), "followed their own will excessively," "ascribed too much to their own preferences"--the measure of excess being the relevant law or moral norm for preserving and promoting the common good. Hence the proposition foundational for Aquinas' entire account of punishment: the order of just equality in relation to the offender is restored--offenders are brought back into equality--precisely by the "subtraction" effected in a corresponding, proportionate suppression of the will which took for itself too much." (pp. 98-99; I've ommitted most notes)
If there is a unifying theme to the foreign and domestic policies of the Bush administration, it is contempt for any mechanisms of collective action--progressive taxation, Social Security, labor unions, the Geneva Conventions, the United Nations--that seek to level the laying field between the strong and the weak. With the exception of the administration's efforts to protect human life in the womb and to defend the traditional definition of marriage, it is hard to imagine an ideology that is farther removed from the mainstream tradition of catholic social thought.That the Republican Party tends towards a kind of individualism is doubtless true, although individualism as a public policy goal doesn't explain some of those items listed above. Even Social Security, which would seem to highlight Bush's individualism is a bit more complicated than it might appear at first. The stock market is certainly a collective enterprise and investing money in personal accounts would seem, at one level, to connect more people to more collective enterprises (that's what businesses are) than they are now. I realize that businesses aiming at maximizing profits are not ordered by the common good in the same way that other human enterprises are (one can argue that they have more to do with interdependent private goods), but that doesn't mean they aren't "collective" in some sense. Moreover, there's no tenet of Catholic social teaching that mandates that a social insurance program like Social Security need be run the same way forever. Whether or not the Bush administrations proposals for reforming it should be adopted is a matter for prudential argument. We are only at the start of that.
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